The scaling property
and the fact that {(t-j): j} is an orthogonal basis for V0 implies that
is an orthogonal basis for Vi. EXERCISE: show this.
In general, for any function g(x) and j,k, we define
Then the above shows that {j,k: k} is an orthogonal basis for Vj.
Restricting attention to V1, this means
for some ck's. This is called the dilation equation. We can of course obtain ck as the projection of onto sqrt(2)(2x-k),
Let us now derive several properties of the ck's.
In proof, use the fact that (x)(x-m)dt=(m), and substitute the dilation equation for (x) and for (x-m).
Proof sketch: use the fact that and substitute the dilation equation for (x).
where
where we write hk for 2-1/2ck. In proof, we just take the Fourier transform of both sides of the dilation equation to give us
The transformation of this infinite sum to the above formula () actually require justification (see [3], p.54).
Iterating this, we obtain
Note that
by the normalization assumption
We may also assume . Hence
This infinite product is defined if H(0)=1. Even if H(0)1, the infinite product may be well defined (because of fortuitious cancellation: see [Collela] in [1])