Why is "0# exists" independent?
martdowd at aol.com
martdowd at aol.com
Wed Jul 6 14:38:32 EDT 2022
FOM:
T. Chow wrote:
Is there some reason you're asking about "0# exists" as opposed to "V=L"?
It would seem that the two questions raise similar philosophical issues,
but isn't the independence of "V=L" an even more basic question?
"0# exists" is equivalent to uncountable many iindiscernibles. This implies V\neq L.It occurred to me after I posted my message that the independence of CH is a "hole in ZFC".The question is, why are there holes in ZFC? Infinitely many indiscernibles seems to beone also. I was thinking about looking at CH. There's a Boolean valued model where \neg CHhas nonzero value. I'm wondering what is provable in ZFC, since the generic model isfictional. I have to review my basic forcing.
Martin Dowd
-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: </pipermail/fom/attachments/20220706/b3a0348a/attachment.html>
More information about the FOM
mailing list