Repeating myself on RVM
Haim Gaifman
hg17 at columbia.edu
Mon Aug 3 19:41:08 EDT 2020
Here are some points concerning the question posed by Joe Shipman:
(1) The very notion of "being too restrictive" is misleading. At best,
the argument in which it is used is question begging.
The foundational debate about CH is not about the true cardinality of
*P*(N) (where *P*(N) = power set of N, and N=set of natural numbers)
but about the very meaningfulness of the notion of a set that contains
all subsets of N.
We know of subsets of N because we can construct them using particular
definitions. We can also define families of subsets, by using
definitions the depend on parameters ranging over N. But the notion of
the absolute totality of all subsets of N,
subsets /whatsoever/, irrespective of a way of getting them by any
definition or construction, is highly suspicious.
If nonetheless you accept this notion, then of course, V=L might appear
restrictive. But the debate is about
this very legitimacy of the very notion of *P*(N).
(2) V=L legitimizes the notion of an arbitrary set, if you assume an
absolute notion of well-ordering.
(3) It appears, by now, that attempts to answer the question about the
cardinality of *P*(N), by assuming some additional set-theoretic axiom,
are doomed to fail, because any such axiom will not be "obvious".
(4) Why should we accept the axiom about extending Lebesgue measures, as
a /set theoretic /axiom?
Haim Gaifman
On 8/2/2020 11:59 PM, Joe Shipman wrote:
> I read a lot of papers which talk about the unsatisfactoriness of “new axioms” for non-absolute statements like CH. It seems clear that most people working in the area don’t like V=L and related axioms because they are too restrictive about that sets may exist, and feel like prospects for settling CH are dim.
>
> But I have a still never heard a satisfactory explanation of what is wrong with the axiom that Lebesgue measure can be extended to all sets of reals in a way that remains countably additive (though no longer translation-invariant).
>
> What is an example of an independent-of-ZFC statement anyone cares about that this axiom does NOT decide (apart from propositions implying the consistency of cardinals larger than “measurable“)?
>
> — JS
>
> Sent from my iPhone
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