[FOM] Is the principle of contradiction a consequence of xx=x?
a.mani.cms at gmail.com
Tue Jul 26 21:09:32 EDT 2016
On Thu, Jul 21, 2016 at 5:42 PM, jean-yves beziau <beziau100 at gmail.com> wrote:
> You will find through the link below a first draft of my paper
> Is the principle of contradiction a consequence of xx=x?
There is plenty of irrelevant stuff in the draft.
The first thing to note is that the kind of contradiction being
discussed has little to do with Marx and Hegel.
Marx did write a lot of interesting constructive mathematics that were
not developed further and was definitely not weak in mathematics
- most economists knew less mathematics at that time (infancy of
Btw the Chinese developed a nonstandard analysis school based on
Marx's reflections on calculus:
Marx probably never read Boole and I don't see why Marx is mentioned
in the paper.
There is plenty of work of Peirce, Peirce's students and others on
These need to be considered in detail. (Esp on x(1-x) = 0 )
How does the meat of the draft go with these and Jevon's analysis (for example)?
Is the probabilist interpretation of x(1-x) =0 completely independent
of the claims?
Do consider discussing the draft (maybe in revised form) in Peirce's
mailing list: http://www.cspeirce.com/peirce-l/peirce-l.htm
Prof(Miss) A. Mani
CU, ASL, AMS, ISRS, CLC, CMS
sip:girlprofessor at ekiga.net
More information about the FOM