[FOM] Is logic prescriptive or descriptive?

Jon Awbrey jawbrey at att.net
Thu Jul 12 11:28:50 EDT 2012

The question of logic's normative status frequently comes up in discussions of C.S. Peirce's philosophy.

Here is a passage from a grant proposal where Peirce defines logic as "formal semiotic", in other words, the formal theory of signs:


The fact that he uses "formal" in this context to mean roughly the same thing as "normative" can be gleaned from numerous other statements, for example, this one:




More information about the FOM mailing list