[FOM] 164: Foundations with (almost) no axioms
Vladik Kreinovich
vladik at cs.utep.edu
Fri Apr 25 17:55:29 EDT 2003
Lucas Wiman wrote:
If the number is sufficiently large,
then yes, this is true of FLT, but I would guess that this number is
context sensitive. For example, in finite Ramsey theory, "large" on the
input of the Ramsey functions might be numbers less than 15, while large
on the output end (in terms of what is provable) might be in the
hundreds of thousands of digits. It is known that odd perfect numbers
must be bigger than 10^300, and there are a slew of other conditions on
what it must be. Is 10^300 a big number? Goldbach's conjecture is
known to hold for all even numbers up through 2*10^16. Is that a big
number? I don't think that mathematicians find the proof that an odd
perfect number must be really, really big to be as satisfying as a
proof. Say that a mathematician proved that any odd perfect number must
be bigger than 10^10^10^10^10...10 (exponent iterated 10^10^10 times).
While I think that mathematicians interested in the problem would find
that an interesting result, they would distinguish it very carefully
from an actual proof that no such number exists. The reason for this
distinction is an interesting problem in philosophy (or perhaps
psychology). Comments?
Comment:
I think the distinction is more pragmatic than psychological.
In mathematics, when a result is proven, we can use it in other proofs, and
this is often one of the main uses of proofs. In this reduction, we often
reduce a property of n to some other property of a larger number say 2^n or
even 2^{2^n}. If this second property is proven for all integers, then all such
reductions are safe and lead to the proof of the original statement. If the
second property is only proven for feasible integers, then we must first check
that the reduction preserves feasibility, so this second proof is much less
useful in this very pragmatic sense.
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