[FOM] consistency and completeness in natural language
Torkel Franzen
torkel at sm.luth.se
Fri Apr 4 07:38:59 EST 2003
Neil says:
> Assume that the formal system S is consistent. Then the
> G"odel-sentence (x)A(x) for S is not provable S.
>
> [The proof of this unprovability result makes no mention at all of
> truth. It is a purely syntactic result.]
>
> Each instance A(_n) is of the form not-B(_n), where B(_n)
> represents "n is a proof, in S, of (x)A(x)". If, for any n, B(_n)
> were a theorem of S, then there would be a proof, in S, of (x)A(x).
> But there is no proof, in S, of (x)A(x). Hence B(_n) is not a
> theorem of S (for any n). But every p.r. statement is provable or
> refutable in S. And for each n, B(_n) is p.r. Hence, for every n,
> B(_n) is refutable in S; whence, A(_n) [i.e., not-B(_n)] is
> provable in S.
>
> [Note that we have thus far confined ourselves to syntax, talking
> only about provability in S. We have not yet made any use of
> the notion of truth (in the intended model). We are arguing in the
> metalanguage with regard to the formal system S. Now, for the
> first time, we bring in the notion of truth:]
>
> Now assume that every p.r. sentence provable in S is true in N
> (i.e., the intended model of the natural numbers).
>
> So for every n, A(_n) is true in N.
>
> Note further that our metalinguistic quantifications "for every n"
> are intended to range over the natural numbers, which form the
> domain of N.
>
> So now, by the semantical rule for the universal quantifier, it
> follows (in the metalanguage) that the universal sentence (x)A(x)
> is true in N. That is, the independent G"odel-sentence for S is
> true in N.
>Unlike Torkel, I see no vitiating or "baffling" circularity in this piece
>of metalinguistic reasoning.
I don't see any circularity either, but how about sheer baffling
pointlessness? By standard properties of "true", (x)A(x) is true if
and only if every A(_n) is true, A(_n) is true if and only if B(_n) is
not true, and B(_n) is true if and only if n is a proof in S of
(x)A(x). Since (x)A(x) is not provable in S given that S is
consistent, it follows that (x)A(x) is true if S is consistent. We
can't get more semantic than this. Why the peculiar added bells and
whistles?
---
Torkel Franzen
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