[FOM] Cognitive biases in the proof of Cook's theorem?
Timothy Y. Chow
tchow at math.princeton.edu
Fri Jan 24 20:15:48 EST 2020
Cas Barla wrote:
> In a series of recent papers, Jianming Zhou and Yu Li have argued :
>
> Cook's theorem is the origin of the loss of nondeterminism in terms
> of the equivalence of the two definitions of NP, the one defining NP as
> the class of problems solvable by a nondeterministic Turing machine in
> polynomial time, and the other defining NP as the class of problems
> verifiable by a deterministic Turing machine in polynomial time.
> Therefore, we argue that fundamental difficulties in understanding P
> versus NP lie firstly at cognition level, then logic level.
[...]
> I am wondering if the definition of class NP as in Cook's paper from
> 1971 has already been questioned or even seriously challenged ?
I took a quick look at these papers. They contain nothing resembling what
I would consider to be accurate mathematical reasoning.
I do agree with them that the "N" in "NP" confuses a lot of people who
haven't formally studied complexity theory and have picked up their
knowledge of NP "on the street" so to speak. That's about the only cogent
observation I could find in what they have written.
Tim
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