[FOM] A question on "property theory"

Frode Bjørdal frode.bjordal at ifikk.uio.no
Fri May 29 10:39:11 EDT 2015

In F.R. Drake's *Set Theory: An Introduction to Large Cardinals, *North
Holland 1974, Ch. 1 §4, the idea that there never were any set theoretical
paradoxes is put forward with the justification that sets must be thought
of in terms of the cumulative hierarchy. It is suggested that theories that
consider any partition of the set theoretical universe should be
considered *property
theories*. In the opening lines of J. Myhill's *Paradoxes*, Synthese vol.
*60*, 1984, 129-143, it is related that Gödel had expressed a similar point
of view in conversation. It is probable that on account of these and
possibly others' terminological choices some contributions to the
literature on paradoxes were published as *theories of properties*. Was
Drake the first to suggest such a language use or are there precursors?

Professor Dr. Frode Bjørdal
Universitetet i Oslo Universidade Federal do Rio Grande do Norte
quicumque vult hinc potest accedere ad paginam virtualem meam
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