[FOM] Equivalence relation on sets of natural numbers

[Stephen Yablo]

George Boolos considers this kind of relation in his"Bad Company" objection
to  Fregean platonism: two sets are the same "parity" if their symmetric
difference is finite and even.  This forces the domain to be finite, if I
remember right, assuming that parities "exist."  See his  "Is Hume's
Principle Analytic?"

On Tue, Sep 11, 2012 at 10:37 AM, Timothy Y. Chow <tchow at alum.mit.edu>wrote:

> I want to declare that two sets of natural numbers are equivalent if their
> symmetric difference is finite.
>
> Is there a standard term for the resulting family of equivalence classes,
> or for the equivalence relation?  I feel like I've seen this somewhere
> before but I can't recall where.
>
> Tim
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-- 
Steve


Linguistics and Philosophy, 32-D808
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