[FOM] "only in a Pickwickian sense"
Margaret MacDougall
Margaret.MacDougall at ed.ac.uk
Mon Mar 5 02:07:41 EST 2012
Dear FOM members
I have come across the expression "only in a Pickwickian sense" on a
number of occasions where the author has intended to account for the
presence of seemingly undesirable entities, such as collections, within
the context of a nominalist theory of mathematics. I have some
reservations about the usefulness of this oft-used expression in
defending the nominalist cause. Would it really help, for example, in
justifying Russell's portrayal of the theory of RT as a no-class theory
to assert that he accommodates the range of significance of a given
propositional function only in a Pickwickian sense?
In terms of the original meaning of the expression, the following
definition (source:
http://labspace.open.ac.uk/mod/resource/view.php?id=430888) may
facilitate our discussion:
'The phrase "Pickwickian sense" comes from Charles Dickens' novel /The
Pickwick Papers/ in which Mr Pickwick and his friends trade insults
without really meaning them. Thus, the phrase has now come to refer to
something that should not be taken too literally.'
I look forward to learning what others think!
Best wishes
Margaret
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