[FOM] expressive power of natural languages
americanmcgeesfr at gmx.net
americanmcgeesfr at gmx.net
Wed Nov 30 14:36:47 EST 2011
Hello FOMers,
I was wondering if there is any (at least semi-)conclusive view about
the expressive power of a natural language like english resulting in a
statement like "whatever it is, it is a language of at least 2nd order".
Of course, I know of Tarski´s comment suspecting natural languages to
be somehow (semantically) universal. But what I´m interested in is a
hint pointing me in a direction what to look for, i.e. is the fact that
one quantifies over classes in a natural language enough to label it
higher order? Can there be anything wrong to take it to be at least a
many-sorted first-order language?
Thanks
Alex Nowak
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