[FOM] Godel's First Incompleteness Theorem as it possibly relates to Physics

Brian Hart hart.bri at gmail.com
Thu Oct 9 22:43:43 EDT 2008

Why doesn't Godel's 1st Incompleteness Theorem imply the
incompleteness of any theory of physics T, assuming that T is
consistent and uses arithmetic?  Shouldn't the constructors of the
Theory of Everything be alarmed?  I know this suggestion of
application of Godel's theorem was made decades ago but why didn't it
make a bigger impact?  Is it because it is wrong or were there some
sociological reasons for mainstream ignorance of it?

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