[FOM] The influence of Leibniz on Russell
Roger Bishop Jones
rbj at rbjones.com
Sun May 6 03:50:17 EDT 2007
On Friday 04 May 2007 20:51, John McCarthy wrote:
> In Russell's book on Leibniz, he remarks on Leibniz's
> determined rejection of predicates with more than one
> argument and considers it to be the major inadequacy of
> Leibniz's ideas.
> Does anyone understand why Leibniz did that?
Wasn't Leibniz just sticking on this to the precedent of
Aristotle and not noticing that "subject-predicate" form was not
The irony here is that from a modern perspective Russell can be
seen to have been wrong, for in some logics, e.g. Church's STT
(which is perfectly good for mathematics) every sentence is of
subject-predicate form (though this terminology is not used),
without loss of expressiveness (you do need higher-order
functions to do this, which presumably Leibniz didn't have).
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