[FOM] How much of math is logic?
Andrew Boucher
Helene.Boucher at wanadoo.fr
Sun Mar 4 02:25:13 EST 2007
Shipman has asked "How much of math is logic?"
I'd like to plug one of my own papers which bears on this question.
In it I show that, in second-order logic with comprehension, one can
use definitions alone to prove a sub-theory of Peano Arithmetic.
This sub-theory is essentially equivalent to Peano Arithmetic without
the Successor Axiom. (Remark this sub-theory is essentially a second-
order version of Raatikainen's Truncated Arithmetic in "The Concept
of Truth in A Finite Universe"). The sub-theory is non-trivial, as
it can prove e.g. Quadratic Reciprocity.
I have notes which show (so this is modulo writing it up, and errors
may exist) that more complicated definitions allow one to dispense
with comprehension altogether, i.e. second-order logic without
comprehension aka two-sorted first-order logic, along with
definitions, suffices to establish this same sub-theory.
The paper (in pdf format) is called "Who Needs (to Assume) Hume's
Principle?" and is available here: http://www.andrewboucher.com/
papers/whoneedshp.pdf
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