[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?

laureano luna laureanoluna at yahoo.es
Thu Jan 11 09:36:51 EST 2007

Michel Herbert wrote:

>> Can anyone provide a principled reason for why
>logicians choose to
>> interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?
>Is it simply because (modern) logic was designed by
>mathematicians, and 
>the inclusive or is more standard (or somehow more
>natural?) in 
>mathematics, like in "a smaller or equal to b", and
>in the "union" (which 
>includes the intersection)?
>(But then, why would it be more "natural" in

I think that it is natural to choose the shorter 
expression to convey the lesser quantity of


Laureano Luna Cabañero

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