[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?

[laureano luna]

Michel Herbert wrote:

>> Can anyone provide a principled reason for why
>logicians choose to
>> interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?
>> 
>Is it simply because (modern) logic was designed by
>mathematicians, and 
>the inclusive or is more standard (or somehow more
>natural?) in 
>mathematics, like in "a smaller or equal to b", and
>in the "union" (which 
>includes the intersection)?
>(But then, why would it be more "natural" in
>mathematics?)

I think that it is natural to choose the shorter 
expression to convey the lesser quantity of
information.

Regards,

Laureano Luna Cabañero




		
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