[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?

[hendrik@topoi.pooq.com]

On Wed, Jan 10, 2007 at 03:04:26AM -0500, Lucius Schoenbaum wrote:
> It might have something to do with the early discovery of the Boolean  
> structure and the analogy with set union and intersection.  Boole in  
> an investigation of the laws of thought already has addition for  
> union, concatenative multiplication for intersection, and gives a  
> distributive law x(y+z)=xy+xz.

Doesn't the same identity hold with exclusive or?

-- hendrik