[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?

[mjmurphy]

>John Baldwin:

> I am preparing to teach a course in `proof'.
>
> Can anyone provide a principled reason for why logicians choose to
>  interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?

Me:

Good question.

One reason is that the exclusive "or" and be interpreted as derived with 
respect to the inclusive "or" and conjunction.

How "or" should be represented in empirical natural language semantics is a 
bit of a different question.

Cheers,

M.J.Murphy