[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?

[John Baldwin]

I am preparing to teach a course in `proof'.

Can anyone provide a principled reason for why logicians choose to
  interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?

I understand that in the interpretations of statutes, the exclusive or
is the default.  So attorney's have made a different choice of 
`formalization'.




John T. Baldwin
Director, Office of Mathematics Education
Department of Mathematics, Statistics, 
and Computer Science  M/C 249
jbaldwin at uic.edu
312-413-2149
Room 327 Science and Engineering Offices (SEO)
851 S. Morgan
Chicago, IL 60607

Assistant to the director
Jan Nekola: 312-413-3750