[FOM] explicit variables

Thomas Forster T.Forster at dpmms.cam.ac.uk
Wed May 31 03:12:28 EDT 2006

 On Mon, 29  May 2006, Arnon Avron wrote:
 > Sorry for the stupidity, but what is wrong with or missing from
 > the usual Tarskian semantics for formulas with free variables?
 > Arnon Avron

 Nothing at all, but that wasn't the implication of my question!
 What i was wondering was: is there anywhere in the logical literature
 any discussion of the possible significance of the difference between 

 and writing

 	$F(x)$  	(to signify that `$x$' is free in $F$)
 in - for example - presentations of the rule of UG (and suchlike).

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