[FOM] Is there...

Giovanni Lagnese lagnese at ngi.it
Mon Jan 23 03:19:49 EST 2006


Is there a logic in which "not ((exists x) not P(x))" is equivalent to 
"(forall x) P(x)", but "not ((forall x) not P(x))" is not equivalent to 
"(exists x) P(x)"?

GL 



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