[FOM] Formal nature of mathematics
Vladimir Sazonov
V.Sazonov at csc.liv.ac.uk
Sat Feb 11 20:12:57 EST 2006
Quoting Dmytro Taranovsky <dmytro at MIT.EDU> Sat, 11 Feb 2006:
> Vladimir Sazonov wrote,
>> For example, I ASSERT, not as a mere speculation, that there is a
>> simple, but rather unusual FORMAL system of axioms and proof
>> rules in which a (semi)set of natural numbers 0,1,2,... < 1000
>> is FORMALLY definable which is PROVABLY closed under successor
>> and is also upper bounded by the number 1000. Quite intuitive
>> informal examples of such semisets from our real world are well
>> known (e.g. presented by P. Vopenka).
>
> I think Sazonov meant 2^1000 instead of 1000,
In the above citation I really mean 1000 (or even 100). Have you read
my last posting
http://www.cs.nyu.edu/pipermail/fom/2006-February/009746.html
with all the details, except formal derivations?
In fact, I should note that in discussions on feasible numbers there is
a serious danger to run into useless speculations like "how many devils
can fit at the end of a needle". We cannot avoid consideration of
FORMAL details like those from my last posting. The point is that
mathematical intuition does not exist alone, in a pure or absolute
(platonic?) form without supporting formalism(s). This is the meaning
assumed when I say "Formal nature of mathematics" and, I believe, this
gives the proper meaning of the formalist view on mathematics.
Thus, again, is anything unclear in my previous posting cited above?
Please note that it is mathematically quite precise, except probably
some my faults in the exposition. Does it resolve your doubts on 1000?
Vladimir Sazonov
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