[FOM] a popular verstion-a question about L-measurable set
Yu Liang
Yu.Liang at mcs.vuw.ac.nz
Sun Jul 20 17:43:19 EDT 2003
Is there a model of ZFC say M so that there is a model of ZFC say M'
inculding M so that the both real sets in M and M' have measure larger than
0 in M'?
Is it possible L=M?
Actually, I really want to know is whether every real set which is closed
under
Turing-eqivalent has measure 0 or 1.
I guess this question could not be answered under ZF (not sure under ZFC).
The known fact is "every cone of Turing degrees has measure 0 and the set of
minimal Turing-degrees has measure 0".
Were there such a model, then it may mean the question can not been solved
under ZFC(again not sure).
So much for that.
Thank you for your caring the question.
Liang Yu
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