[FOM] strange phenomenon
Robin Adams
radams at maths.man.ac.uk
Thu Jan 9 08:51:21 EST 2003
On Tue, 7 Jan 2003, Neil Tennant wrote:
> Hence my challenge: can anyone construct a completely detailed formal
> proof of Cantor's Theorem, in natural deduction, with every step
> primitive, to which neither of these two proposed reductions is
> applicable?
I very much doubt there is one. I can show that there is no normalised
proof in Higher Order Logic.
As a warm-up, what goes wrong when normalising the usual proof? When
deriving a contradiction from the assumption of a bijection F between A
and PA, we can produce as usual a term t such that
t in F(t) <-> ~(t in F(t))
However, there is no normalised derivation of # from P <-> ~P; in fact,
there is no normalised derivation of Q from P -> P -> Q and (P -> Q) -> P.
For, any such proof must end with two applications of (-> E) to P -> P ->
Q:
(?1)
P -> P -> Q P
-------------------- (?2)
P -> Q P
---------------------
Q
(?1) must end with an application of (-> E) to (P -> Q) -> P:
(?3)
(P -> Q) -> P P -> Q
--------------------------
P -> P -> Q P
----------------------------- (?2)
P -> Q P
---------------------------------------
Q
But the first of our new rules of reduction can be applied to any such
derivation.
Here is the only derivation of Q from P -> P -> Q and (P -> Q) -> P to
which cut elimination cannot be applied:
P -> P -> Q [P](1)
----------------------
P -> Q [P](1) P -> P -> Q [P](2)
------------------- ----------------
Q P -> Q [P](2)
--------(1) --------------
(P -> Q) -> P P -> Q Q
-------------------------- ------(2)
P -> P -> Q P (P -> Q) -> P P -> Q
-------------------------- ------------------------
P -> Q P
---------------------------------------------------
Q
Call this derivation (A). Applying the first new reduction to this
derivation yields:
P->P->Q [P](2)
-----------
P->P->Q [P](1) P->Q [P](2)
---------------- -----------
P -> Q [P](1) Q
-------------- ------(2)
Q (P->Q)->P P->Q
------(1) -----------------
P -> Q P
---------------------
Q
Call this (B). Applying cut elimination to (B) yields derivation (A)
again! Thus, in this case, our first new reduction and cut elimination
are inverses of one another.
A similar analysis shows that there can be no normalised proof of Cantor's
Theorem in HOL; in fact, there can be no derivation of # from the
assumption that F : A -> PA is surjective:
(A X : PA) (E a : A) (A x : A) (Xx <-> Fax)
For any such derivation would have to have the form:
(AX:PA)(Ea:A)(Ax:A)(Xx<->Fax) [(Ax:A)(phi(x)<->Fax)]
----------------------------- (D1)
(Ea:A)(Ax:A)(phi[x,F]<->Fax) #
--------------------------------------
#
for some formula phi[x,F] with free variables x:A and F:A -> PA. As
the only term of type A we have is a, (D1) must be of the form
(Ax:A)(phi[x,F] <-> Fax)
------------------------ (D3)
(Ax:A)(phi[x,F] <-> Fax) phi[a,F] <-> Faa phi(a)
---------------------- -----------------------------------
phi[a,F] <-> Faa Faa
------------------------------------
phi[a,F]
(D2)
#
and so the first new rule of deduction can be applied to it.
I am sure a similar analysis could be made to show there is no normalised
first-order proof of Cantor's Theorem from the axioms of some set theory.
I hope all the above helps. In particular, I think
(P -> P -> Q) -> ((P -> Q) -> P) -> Q may be a simpler and more useful
example to study than Cantor's Theorem to see why the first new rule of
reduction is problematic.
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