FOM: Re: precursors of Cantor

[Neil Tennant]

On Fri, 14 Jun 2002, charles silver wrote:

>     What would happen if a one-to-one correspondence were defined as a
> one-to-one map in both directions instead of being one-to-one plus onto in
> only one direction?

Clarification needed: do you mean something like

	the Fs are in 1-1 correspondence with the Gs
		 iff
	there is a 1-1 map of all the Fs into the Gs
	and
	there is a 1-1 map of all the Gs into the Fs	?

In that case, wouldn't the Schroeder-Bernstein theorem yield the existence
of a 1-1 map from the Fs onto the Gs ?

Neil Tennant