FOM: Objectivity of logical/mathematical truth?

[Julio Gonzalez Cabillon]

At 10:33 AM 17/12/1997 -0800, Solomon Feferman wrote:

| In his reply yesterday to Joe Shipman on conclusiveness, Moshe Machover
| goes to the heart of the philosophical question: if one is not a platonic
| realist, Kantian or empiricist, and if one believes (as I do) that
| mathematics is "socially constructed", how can logical/mathematical truth
| be objective in character? 
|...

  Now, if one believes that mathematics is "socially constructed" (as I do
  believe at times), how can we explain Wigner's dilemma of "unreasonable
  effectiveness of mathematics in the natural sciences."

  How does a "socially constructed" discipline possess these science-like
  qualifications?

  I would like to hear all kind of reactions to this question. Thanks.

  Best wishes to all,
                            Julio Gonzalez Cabillon