[FOM] explicit variables

[Thomas Forster]

 On Mon, 29  May 2006, Arnon Avron wrote:
 
 > 
 > Sorry for the stupidity, but what is wrong with or missing from
 > the usual Tarskian semantics for formulas with free variables?
 > 
 > 
 > Arnon Avron

 
 Nothing at all, but that wasn't the implication of my question!
 
 What i was wondering was: is there anywhere in the logical literature
 any discussion of the possible significance of the difference between 
 writing
 
	$F$  

 and writing

 	$F(x)$  	(to signify that `$x$' is free in $F$)
 
 in - for example - presentations of the rule of UG (and suchlike).
 
          tf

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